Cisco Certified Network Associate - 200-301 FREE EXAM DUMPS QUESTIONS & ANSWERS]

Question 1

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

A. The interface is error-disabled B. There is a speed mismatch C. There is a duplex mismatch D. There is a protocol mismatch E. The interface is shut down

Discussion 0

Correct Answer: A,B Vote an answer

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Question 2

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A. IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration B. Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes C. An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes. D. IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

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Correct Answer: C Vote an answer

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Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

A. the 10.0.0.0 network B. the source 10.0.1.100 C. a single destination address D. all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

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Correct Answer: C Vote an answer

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Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A. between zones 3 and 4 B. between zones 3 and 6 C. between zones 2 and 5 D. between zones 1 and 2

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Correct Answer: B Vote an answer

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Question 5

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to resolve the configuration issue?

A. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network B. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network C. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 D. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

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Correct Answer: A Vote an answer

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Question 6

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

A. LLQ B. CBWFQ C. shaping D. policing

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Correct Answer: D Vote an answer

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Question 7

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails.
Which configuration must be used?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Discussion 0

Correct Answer: A Vote an answer

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Question 8

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery B. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol C. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits D. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

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Correct Answer: A Vote an answer

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Question 9

Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. B. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. C. The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen. D. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

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Correct Answer: A Vote an answer

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Question 10

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

Discussion 0

Correct Answer:

Explanation:
Use the displayed drag-and-drop mapping for this item. SNMP uses manager and agent identifiers so a monitoring station can poll, receive traps, and identify managed devices. Commands for contact, location, chassis ID, and community or user parameters help the NMS organize and authenticate device management information. In Cisco CCNA 200-301 v1.1, IP Services questions frequently test the practical boundary between similar features: what the feature does, where it is configured, and what problem it is meant to solve.
These identifiers are not forwarding commands; they support operational monitoring and inventory visibility.
A clean way to validate the answer is to map the wording of the scenario to the actual device function. If the feature supplies addressing, forwarding, authentication, trunking, route selection, or controller communication, the answer must match that function exactly rather than a nearby protocol name.

Question 11

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)

A. reuses addressses at multiple sites B. provides external internet network connectivity C. propagates routing information to WAN links D. conserves globally unique addresss space E. provides unlimited addresss ranges

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Correct Answer: A,D Vote an answer

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Question 12

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

A. 255.255.255.240 B. 255.255.255.128 C. 255.255.248. D. 255.255.255.248

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Correct Answer: D Vote an answer

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Question 13

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half- open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A. SYN flood B. reflection C. teardrop D. amplification

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Correct Answer: A Vote an answer

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Question 14

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

A. 8 B. 9 C. 2 D. 5

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Correct Answer: A Vote an answer

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Question 15

Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A. ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64 B. ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66 C. ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65 D. ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

Discussion 0

Correct Answer: B Vote an answer

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