Exam MCCQE Topic 1 Question 288 Discussion

Actual exam question for Medical Council of Canada's MCCQE exam
Question #: 288
Topic #: 1
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of a limp with malaise, fever and left leg pain. On examination, he looks sick, has a temperature of 38.5°C and is able to weight-bear.
His hip examination reveals mildly decreased range of motion. Radiographs of the hip and femur show mild sclerosis of proximal femoral metaphysis. His C-reactive protein level is 15 mg/L ( < 8). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Suggested Answer: A Vote an answer

This presentation best fits osteomyelitis, likely subacute given the 2-week course and radiographic metaphyseal sclerosis. MCCQE objectives stress that fever, systemic malaise, and elevated inflammatory markers (CRP above normal) with localized limb pain/limp should prompt consideration of bone infection even if the child can still weight-bear. Osteomyelitis in children commonly involves the metaphysis of long bones due to vascular anatomy; early x-rays may be normal, but with time they can show periosteal reaction or sclerosis. In contrast, transient synovitis typically occurs after a viral illness, is usually afebrile or minimally febrile, and inflammatory markers are often normal. Legg-Calve-Perthes is classically age 4-8 and affects the femoral epiphysis/head with avascular necrosis changes rather than metaphyseal sclerosis and systemic illness. SCFE presents in adolescents with limp and limited internal rotation/obligate external rotation, usually without fever or elevated CRP, and x-ray shows epiphyseal slip. An undisplaced fracture would usually have trauma history and not systemic features.

by Greg at Sep 18, 2026, 12:54 PM

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