Cisco.210-260.v2019-05-07.q159

Exam Code:210-260
Exam Name:Implementing Cisco Network Security
Certification Provider:Cisco
Free Question Number:159
Version:v2019-05-07
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Exam Question List
Question 1: How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition...
Question 2: Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an atta...
Question 3: What is true of an ASA in transparent mode?...
Question 4: Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can miti...
Question 5: Which statement about communication over failover interfaces...
Question 6: Which command do you enter to verify that a VPN connection i...
Question 7: What is the primary purpose of a defined rule in an IPS?...
Question 8: Which Cisco feature can help mitigate spoofing attacks by ve...
Question 9: By default, how does a zone-based firewall handle traffic to...
Question 10: Which FirePOWER preprocessor engine is used to prevent SYN a...
Question 11: Referencing the CIA model, in which scenario is a hash-only ...
Question 12: Which two commands are used to implement Cisco IOS Resilient...
Question 13: Which option is the default value for the Diffie-Hellman gro...
Question 14: Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are...
Question 15: On an ASA, the policy that indicates that traffic should not...
Question 16: Which address block is reserved for locally assigned unique ...
Question 17: Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisc...
Question 18: Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Cho...
Question 19: Which command should be used to enable AAA authentication to...
Question 20: Which statement about an ASA in transparent mode is true?...
Question 21: Which Sourcefire logging action should you choose to record ...
Question 22: Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Confi...
Question 23: Which two primary security concerns can you mitigate with a ...
Question 24: When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the ...
Question 25: What is a possible reason for the error message?Router(confi...
Question 26: When using the Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM), whic...
Question 27: Which IDS/IPS solution can monitor system processes and reso...
Question 28: Which component offers a variety of security solutions, incl...
Question 29: Which IPS mode is less secure than other options but allows ...
Question 30: Which statement about personal firewalls is true?...
Question 31: For what reason would you configure multiple security contex...
Question 32: A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?...
Question 33: In which configuration mode do you configure the ip ospf aut...
Question 34: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What type of firewall would ...
Question 35: Which syslog severity level is level number 7?...
Question 36: Which quantifiable item should you consider when your organi...
Question 37: What is the effect of the ip scp server enable command?...
Question 38: If a packet matches more than one class map in an individual...
Question 39: What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard ...
Question 40: Which type of firewall can act on the behalf of the end devi...
Question 41: Which description of the use of a private key is true?...
Question 42: Which network device does NTP authenticate?...
Question 43: Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks with...
Question 44: Which two characteristics of RADIUS are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 45: What is a benefit of a web application firewall?...
Question 46: Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE mes...
Question 47: What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec V...
Question 48: Which statement about zone-based firewall configuration is t...
Question 49: Which two actions can a zone-based firewall take when lookin...
Question 50: What is an advantage of placing an IPS on the inside of a ne...
Question 51: How can you protect CDP from reconnaissance attacks?...
Question 52: Which component of a BYOD architecture provides AAA services...
Question 53: Which technology can be used to rate data fidelity and to pr...
Question 54: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 55: You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to b...
Question 56: When a switch has multiple links connected to a downstream s...
Question 57: When is the best time to perform an anti-virus signature upd...
Question 58: What is the most common Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 a...
Question 59: Which product can be used to provide application layer prote...
Question 60: Which technology can you implement to centrally mitigate pot...
Question 61: A clientless SSL VPN user who is connecting on a Windows Vis...
Question 62: Which NAT type allows only objects or groups to reference an...
Question 63: Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true...
Question 64: What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of d...
Question 65: What is the actual IOS privilege level of User Exec mode?...
Question 66: Which two types of VLANs using PVLANs are valid? (Choose two...
Question 67: Which type of attack can exploit design flaws in the impleme...
Question 68: Which type of social-engineering attack uses normal telephon...
Question 69: Which two statements about routed firewall mode are true? (C...
Question 70: Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is r...
Question 71: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) For which reason is the tunn...
Question 72: If the native VLAN on a trunk is different on each end of th...
Question 73: What is the Cisco preferred countermeasure to mitigate CAM o...
Question 74: Which statement about application blocking is true?...
Question 75: In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HT...
Question 76: What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 swit...
Question 77: When is the default deny all policy an exception in zone-bas...
Question 78: Which two characteristics apply to an Intrusion Prevention S...
Question 79: Which feature allows a dynamic PAT pool to select the next a...
Question 80: If a router configuration includes the line aaa authenticati...
Question 81: What command can you use to verify the binding table status?...
Question 82: Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? ...
Question 83: What is the only permitted operation for processing multicas...
Question 84: Which statements about reflexive access lists are true? (Cho...
Question 85: Which alert protocol is used with Cisco IPS Manager Express ...
Question 86: Which two characteristics of a PVLAN are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 87: How many crypto map sets can you apply to a router interface...
Question 88: Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? (Choose two...
Question 89: DRAG DROP Drag the recommendations on the left to the Crypto...
Question 90: Which TACACS+ server-authentication protocols are supported ...
Question 91: What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?...
Question 92: Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? ...
Question 93: Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS devic...
Question 94: Which command is needed to enable SSH support on a Cisco Rou...
Question 95: Which IPS mode provides the maximum number of actions?...
Question 96: Which command causes a Layer 2 switch interface to operate a...
Question 97: You want to allow all of your company's users to access the ...
Question 98: Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentic...
Question 99: Which of the following are features of IPsec transport mode?...
Question 100: How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?...
Question 101: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 102: Which command verifies phase 1 of an IPsec VPN on a Cisco ro...
Question 103: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 104: In what type of attack does an attacker virtually change a d...
Question 105: SIMULATION Scenario Given the new additional connectivity re...
Question 106: By which kind of threat is the victim tricked into entering ...
Question 107: Which source port does IKE use when NAT has been detected be...
Question 108: DRAG DROP Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to...
Question 109: Which Sourcefire event action should you choose if you want ...
Question 110: You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which descrip...
Question 111: Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a ...
Question 112: Which two SNMPv3 services support its capabilities as a secu...
Question 113: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 114: Which protocol provides security to Secure Copy?...
Question 115: How can you mitigate attacks in which the attacker attaches ...
Question 116: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) A network security administr...
Question 117: Which type of IPS can identify worms that are propagating in...
Question 118: What features can protect the data plane? (Choose three.)...
Question 119: Which two default settings for port security are true? (Choo...
Question 120: Which Cisco Security Manager application collects informatio...
Question 121: Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)...
Question 122: What are two challenges when deploying host-level IPS? (Choo...
Question 123: Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF...
Question 124: What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?...
Question 125: Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?...
Question 126: Which network topology describes multiple LANs in a geograph...
Question 127: If you change the native VLAN on the trunk port to an unused...
Question 128: Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choos...
Question 129: You have been tasked with blocking user access to websites t...
Question 130: Which Firepower Management Center feature detects and blocks...
Question 131: Which two characteristics of an application layer firewall a...
Question 132: When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication o...
Question 133: Which command will configure a Cisco ASA firewall to authent...
Question 134: A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. Wh...
Question 135: What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal fi...
Question 136: If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into ...
Question 137: How does a zone-based firewall implementation handle traffic...
Question 138: Which option is the cloud-based security service from Cisco ...
Question 139: Which statement correctly describes the function of a privat...
Question 140: Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful f...
Question 141: Which protocol offers data Integrity, encryption, authentica...
Question 142: Your security team has discovered a malicious program that h...
Question 143: Which mechanism does the FireAMP Connector use to avoid conf...
Question 144: Which wildcard mask is associated with a subnet mask of /27?...
Question 145: How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?...
Question 146: Which option describes information that must be considered w...
Question 147: Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between...
Question 148: Which type of mirroring does SPAN technology perform?...
Question 149: Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication agains...
Question 150: Which two functions can SIEM provide? (Choose two.)...
Question 151: Which two options are the primary deployment models for mobi...
Question 152: Which type of encryption technology has the broadest platfor...
Question 153: Which security zone is automatically defined by the system?...
Question 154: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two effects of the ...
Question 155: What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?...
Question 156: What is true about the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration fea...
Question 157: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which area represents the da...
Question 158: Which IPS detection method can you use to detect attacks tha...
Question 159: Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to con...