Cisco.210-260.v2019-07-08.q177

Exam Code:210-260
Exam Name:Implementing Cisco Network Security
Certification Provider:Cisco
Free Question Number:177
Version:v2019-07-08
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   - Jul 24, 2019

No.# Right answer is 4

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Exam Question List
Question 1: Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can miti...
Question 2: What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two...
Question 3: Which type of malicious software can create a back-door into...
Question 4: Which statement about zone-based firewall configuration is t...
Question 5: Which cloud-based security service from Cisco provides URL f...
Question 6: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of the gi...
Question 7: Which two events would cause the state table of a stateful f...
Question 8: On an ASA, which maps are used to identify traffic?...
Question 9: Which command do you enter to verify that a VPN connection i...
Question 10: How is management traffic isolated on a Cisco ASR 1002?...
Question 11: Which protocol offers data integrity, encryption, authentica...
Question 12: Which action does standard antivirus software perform as par...
Question 13: Which IDS/IPS solution can monitor system processes and reso...
Question 14: What are two challenges of using a network-based IPS? (Choos...
Question 15: When is the default deny all policy an exception in zone-bas...
Question 16: A proxy firewall protects against which type of attack?...
Question 17: Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF...
Question 18: Which description of the use of a private key is true?...
Question 19: Referencing the CIA model, in which scenario is a hash-only ...
Question 20: Which IDS/IPS state misidentifies acceptable behavior as an ...
Question 21: What features can protect the data plane? (Choose three.)...
Question 22: Which IPS mode provides the maximum number of actions?...
Question 23: Which type of mirroring does SPAN technology perform?...
Question 24: Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are...
Question 25: How does a zone pair handle traffic if the policy definition...
Question 26: What improvement does EAP-FASTv2 provide over EAP-FAST?...
Question 27: Which command successfully creates an administrative user wi...
Question 28: Which source port does IKE use when NAT has been detected be...
Question 29: Which command will configure a Cisco ASA firewall to authent...
Question 30: What is the primary purpose of a defined rule in an IPS?...
Question 31: Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose tw...
Question 32: What is an advantage of split tunneling?...
Question 33: Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the contr...
Question 34: Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)...
Question 35: An attacker installs a rogue switch that sends superior BPDU...
Question 36: Which security zone is automatically defined by the system?...
Question 37: Which mechanism does the FireAMP Connector use to avoid conf...
Question 38: Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between...
Question 39: Your security team has discovered a malicious program that h...
Question 40: In which configuration mode do you configure the ip ospf aut...
Question 41: What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is w...
Question 42: Which TACACS+ server-authentication protocols are supported ...
Question 43: Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)...
Question 44: Which information can you display by executing the show cryp...
Question 45: Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisc...
Question 46: Which type of social-engineering attack uses normal telephon...
Question 47: In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HT...
Question 48: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 49: Which of the following statements about access lists are tru...
Question 50: Which feature can help a router or switch maintain packet fo...
Question 51: Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco r...
Question 52: By which kind of threat is the victim tricked into entering ...
Question 53: What is the most common Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 a...
Question 54: Which type of secure connectivity does an extranet provide?...
Question 55: You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to b...
Question 56: Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?...
Question 57: How can you protect CDP from reconnaissance attacks?...
Question 58: Which statement about NAT table evaluation in the ASA is tru...
Question 59: Why does ISE require its own certificate issued by a trusted...
Question 60: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) While troubleshooting site-t...
Question 61: Which two 802.1x features can you enable by running the IOS ...
Question 62: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) While troubleshooting site-t...
Question 63: Which network device does NTP authenticate?...
Question 64: Which technology can block a non-malicious program that is r...
Question 65: Which feature filters CoPP packets?...
Question 66: Which command can you enter to configure OSPF to use hashing...
Question 67: What is a valid implicit permit rule for traffic that is tra...
Question 68: What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA tr...
Question 69: Which two characteristics of a PVLAN are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 70: You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which descrip...
Question 71: Which statement about extended access lists is true?...
Question 72: Which protocol provides security to Secure Copy?...
Question 73: Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to con...
Question 74: What security feature allows a private IP address to access ...
Question 75: Which IPS detection method can you use to detect attacks tha...
Question 76: Which component offers a variety of security solutions, incl...
Question 77: What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? ...
Question 78: What configuration allows AnyConnect to automatically establ...
Question 79: Which statement about Cisco ACS authentication and authoriza...
Question 80: Which two advantages does the on-premise model for MDM deplo...
Question 81: What is the Cisco preferred countermeasure to mitigate CAM o...
Question 82: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two effects of the ...
Question 83: Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission?...
Question 84: A data breach has occurred and your company database has bee...
Question 85: How can you prevent NAT rules from sending traffic to incorr...
Question 86: How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital...
Question 87: Which feature allows a dynamic PAT pool to select the next a...
Question 88: Which attack involves large numbers of ICMP packets with a s...
Question 89: What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Modu...
Question 90: What type of packet creates and performs network operations ...
Question 91: Which protocols use encryption to protect the confidentialit...
Question 92: Which two primary security concerns can you mitigate with a ...
Question 93: If a packet matches more than one class map in an individual...
Question 94: How can you mitigate attacks in which the attacker attaches ...
Question 95: When using the Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM), whic...
Question 96: Which two SNMPv3 services support its capabilities as a secu...
1 commentQuestion 97: What is the maximum number of methods that a single method l...
Question 98: Which statement provides the best definition of malware?...
Question 99: How does PEAP protect the EAP exchange?...
Question 100: Which firewall configuration must you perform to allow traff...
Question 101: When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication o...
Question 102: What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec V...
Question 103: What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal fi...
Question 104: Which NAT type allows only objects or groups to reference an...
Question 105: Which two characteristics of an application layer firewall a...
Question 106: Which syslog severity level is level number 7?...
Question 107: Which command initializes a lawful intercept view?...
Question 108: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of the gi...
Question 109: What does the policy map do in CoPP?...
Question 110: Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choos...
Question 111: Which two types of VLANs using PVLANs are valid? (Choose two...
Question 112: What is a limitation of network-based IPS?...
Question 113: Which statement about interface and global access rules is t...
Question 114: Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks with...
Question 115: In which form of fraud does an attacker try to learn informa...
Question 116: Which type of PVLAN port allows hosts in the same VLAN to co...
Question 117: How does the transparent firewall process traffic through th...
Question 118: Which security principle has been violated if data is altere...
Question 119: Which statement about IOS privilege levels is true?...
Question 120: Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? ...
Question 121: How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?...
Question 122: For what reason would you configure multiple security contex...
Question 123: You want to allow all of your company's users to access the ...
Question 124: Which type of attack can exploit design flaws in the impleme...
Question 125: Which command enables authentication at the OSPFv2 routing p...
Question 126: Which statement about personal firewalls is true?...
Question 127: Which two actions can a zone-based firewall take when lookin...
Question 128: What is the effect of the send-lifetime local 23:59:00 31 De...
Question 129: Which command is needed to enable SSH support on a Cisco Rou...
Question 130: Which network topology describes multiple LANs in a geograph...
Question 131: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) With which NTP server has th...
Question 132: Which two actions does an IPS perform? (Choose two.)...
Question 133: What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure da...
Question 134: Which two commands are used to implement Resilient IOS Confi...
Question 135: Which statement about application blocking is true?...
Question 136: What are two ways to prevent eavesdropping when you perform ...
Question 137: What are two challenges when deploying host-level IPS? (Choo...
Question 138: Which RADIUS server authentication protocols are supported o...
Question 139: Which command should be used to enable AAA authentication to...
Question 140: Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?...
Question 141: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) For which reason is the tunn...
Question 142: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 143: What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decr...
Question 144: Which alert protocol is used with Cisco IPS Manager Express ...
Question 145: How many crypto map sets can you apply to a router interface...
Question 146: Which type of firewall monitors and protects a specific syst...
Question 147: What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?...
Question 148: Which two options are the primary deployment models for mobi...
Question 149: What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 swit...
Question 150: Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Ch...
Question 151: Which statements about reflexive access lists are true? (Cho...
Question 152: Which STP feature can prevent an attacker from becoming the ...
Question 153: What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?...
Question 154: What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?...
Question 155: Which option is the most effective placement of an IPS devic...
Question 156: Which statement about the communication between interfaces o...
Question 157: Which Sourcefire event action should you choose if you want ...
Question 158: Which type of social engineering attack targets top executiv...
Question 159: Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentic...
Question 160: After reloading a router, you issue the dir command to verif...
Question 161: In which two situations should you use in-band management? (...
Question 162: Which component of a BYOD architecture provides AAA services...
Question 163: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 164: Which two ESA services are available for incoming and outgoi...
Question 165: Which IPS detection method examines network traffic for prec...
Question 166: Which security measures can protect the control plane of a C...
Question 167: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many times was a read-on...
Question 168: Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true...
Question 169: In which type of attack does the attacker attempt to overloa...
Question 170: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) You have configured R1 and R...
Question 171: Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choos...
Question 172: When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take...
Question 173: A user on your network inadvertently activates a botnet prog...
Question 174: Which technology can best protect data at rest on a user sys...
Question 175: In which type of attack does an attacker send email messages...
Question 176: What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promi...
Question 177: If the native VLAN on a trunk is different on each end of th...