Cisco.210-260.v2019-08-06.q180

Exam Code:210-260
Exam Name:Implementing Cisco Network Security
Certification Provider:Cisco
Free Question Number:180
Version:v2019-08-06
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Exam Question List
Question 1: Which statement about IOS privilege levels is true?...
Question 2: Which Sourcefire logging action should you choose to record ...
Question 3: Which IPS mode provides the maximum number of actions?...
Question 4: How does the 802.1x supplicant communicate with the authenti...
Question 5: Which quantifiable item should you consider when your organi...
Question 6: You have just deployed SNMPv3 in your environment. Your mana...
Question 7: Which security principle has been violated if data is altere...
Question 8: According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols sho...
Question 9: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What are two effects of the ...
Question 10: What are two reasons to recommend SNMPv3 over SNMPv2? (Choos...
Question 11: Which statement about zone-based firewall configuration is t...
Question 12: If the native VLAN on a trunk is different on each end of th...
Question 13: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) What is the effect of the gi...
Question 14: What are two major considerations when choosing between a SP...
Question 15: What command can you use to verify the binding table status?...
Question 16: A clientless SSL VPN user who is connecting on a Windows Vis...
Question 17: Which path do you follow to enable AAA though the SDM?...
Question 18: You are configuring a NAT rule on a Cisco ASA. Which descrip...
Question 19: Which components does HMAC use to determine the authenticity...
Question 20: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) With which NTP server has th...
Question 21: Which two types of firewalls work at Layer 4 and above? (Cho...
Question 22: Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose tw...
Question 23: What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? ...
Question 24: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) While troubleshooting site-t...
Question 25: What is a reason for an organization to deploy a personal fi...
Question 26: On an ASA, which maps are used to identify traffic?...
Question 27: Referencing the CIA model, in which scenario is a hash-only ...
Question 28: In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HT...
Question 29: You have been tasked with blocking user access to websites t...
Question 30: Which term refers to the electromagnetic interference that c...
Question 31: Which IDS/IPS state misidentifies acceptable behavior as an ...
Question 32: Which command do you enter to configure your firewall to con...
Question 33: In which type of attack does an attacker overwrite an entry ...
Question 34: Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco r...
Question 35: Which two ESA services are available for incoming and outgoi...
Question 36: Which two commands are used to implement Cisco IOS Resilient...
Question 37: There are two versions of IKE: IKEv1 and IKEv2. Both IKEv1 a...
Question 38: Which technology can be used to rate data fidelity and to pr...
Question 39: What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless devi...
Question 40: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 41: Which command successfully creates an administrative user wi...
Question 42: Which two options are the primary deployment models for mobi...
Question 43: Which NAT type allows only objects or groups to reference an...
Question 44: Which RADIUS server authentication protocols are supported o...
Question 45: Which statement about application blocking is true?...
Question 46: Which feature prevents loops by moving a nontrunking port in...
Question 47: Which statement about personal firewalls is true?...
Question 48: What is the maximum number of methods that a single method l...
Question 49: Which command do you enter to enable authentication for OSPF...
Question 50: When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication o...
Question 51: Which two types of VLANs using PVLANs are valid? (Choose two...
Question 52: Which product can be used to provide application layer prote...
Question 53: Which of the following are features of IPsec transport mode?...
Question 54: Which two characteristics of a PVLAN are true? (Choose two.)...
Question 55: Which command do you enter to verify the status and settings...
Question 56: Which two SNMPv3 services support its capabilities as a secu...
Question 57: When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from t...
Question 58: What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure da...
Question 59: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) How many times was a read-on...
Question 60: Which EAP method authenticates a client against Active Direc...
Question 61: How does a zone-based firewall implementation handle traffic...
Question 62: Which IPSec mode is used to encrypt traffic directly between...
Question 63: Which technology could be used on top of an MPLS VPN to add ...
Question 64: Which statement about an ASA in transparent mode is true?...
Question 65: Which protocol provides security to Secure Copy?...
Question 66: Which alert protocol is used with Cisco IPS Manager Express ...
Question 67: Which type of mirroring does SPAN technology perform?...
Question 68: Which firewall configuration must you perform to allow traff...
Question 69: What configuration allows AnyConnect to automatically establ...
Question 70: Which two attack types can be prevented with the implementat...
Question 71: Which network device does NTP authenticate?...
Question 72: Which option is the default value for the Diffie-Hellman gro...
Question 73: Which Cisco Security Manager application collects informatio...
Question 74: Which two statements about Telnet access to the ASA are true...
Question 75: What is the default timeout interval during which a router w...
Question 76: Which two configurations can prevent VLAN hopping attack fro...
Question 77: What are two challenges of using a network-based IPS? (Choos...
Question 78: What is a possible reason for the error message?Router(confi...
Question 79: What is an advantage of split tunneling?...
Question 80: What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security applian...
Question 81: Which feature can help a router or switch maintain packet fo...
Question 82: Scenario In this simulation, you have access to ASDM only. R...
Question 83: Which technology can you implement to centrally mitigate pot...
Question 84: What does the DH group refer to?...
Question 85: Which type of IPS can identify worms that are propagating in...
Question 86: In which two situations should you use out-of-band managemen...
Question 87: Which two actions can a zone-based firewall take when lookin...
Question 88: Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentic...
Question 89: Which IPS detection method examines network traffic for prec...
Question 90: Which command do you enter to verify the Phase 1 status of a...
Question 91: What are two advanced features of the Cisco AMP solution for...
Question 92: Which Sourcefire event action should you choose if you want ...
Question 93: Which attack involves large numbers of ICMP packets with a s...
Question 94: If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into ...
Question 95: Which type of encryption technology has the broadest platfor...
Question 96: What are two direct-to-tower methods for redirecting web tra...
Question 97: In which type of attack does the attacker attempt to overloa...
Question 98: If you change the native VLAN on the trunk port to an unused...
Question 99: Which statement provides the best definition of malware?...
Question 100: Which two 802.1x features can you enable by running the IOS ...
Question 101: Which source port does IKE use when NAT has been detected be...
Question 102: What is the effect of the send-lifetime local 23:59:00 31 De...
Question 103: Which wildcard mask is associated with a subnet mask of /27?...
Question 104: When using the Adaptive Security Device Manager (ASDM), whic...
Question 105: What is a potential drawback to leaving VLAN 1 as the native...
Question 106: Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Ch...
Question 107: Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission?...
Question 108: Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choos...
Question 109: A data breach has occurred and your company database has bee...
Question 110: Which two models of ASA tend to be used in a data center? (C...
Question 111: How can you detect a false negative on an IPS?...
Question 112: Which command initializes a lawful intercept view?...
Question 113: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) Which area represents the da...
Question 114: Which statement represents a difference between an access li...
Question 115: What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 swit...
Question 116: Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)...
Question 117: What improvement does EAP-FASTv2 provide over EAP-FAST?...
Question 118: What are two default behaviors of the traffic on a zone-base...
Question 119: Which IOS command do you enter to test authentication agains...
Question 120: Which statement correctly describes the function of a privat...
Question 121: Which two actions can a zone-based firewall apply to a packe...
Question 122: In which form of fraud does an attacker try to learn informa...
Question 123: Which command verifies phase 1 of an IPsec VPN on a Cisco ro...
Question 124: What are two uses of SIEM software? (Choose two.)...
Question 125: Which command will configure a Cisco ASA firewall to authent...
Question 126: What type of packet creates and performs network operations ...
Question 127: What is true about the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration fea...
Question 128: How can you prevent NAT rules from sending traffic to incorr...
Question 129: What are two challenges when deploying host-level IPS? (Choo...
Question 130: What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN t...
Question 131: Which type of malicious software can create a back-door into...
Question 132: Which security measures can protect the control plane of a C...
Question 133: What are the primary attack methods of VLAN hopping? (Choose...
Question 134: Which network topology describes multiple LANs in a geograph...
Question 135: What is a limitation of network-based IPS?...
Question 136: What is the effect of the ip scp server enable command?...
Question 137: Which three descriptions of RADIUS are true? (Choose three.)...
Question 138: Which Cisco feature can help mitigate spoofing attacks by ve...
Question 139: For what reason would you configure multiple security contex...
Question 140: Which statement about the native VLAN is true?...
Question 141: Which command is needed to enable SSH support on a Cisco Rou...
Question 142: Which TACACS+ server-authentication protocols are supported ...
Question 143: What type of attack was the Stuxnet virus?...
Question 144: If a packet matches more than one class map in an individual...
Question 145: Which IDS/IPS solution can monitor system processes and reso...
Question 146: Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisc...
Question 147: What are two features of transparent firewall mode? (Choose ...
Question 148: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) The Admin user is unable to ...
Question 149: Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given config...
Question 150: Which two characteristics of an application layer firewall a...
Question 151: What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA tr...
Question 152: What is an advantage of placing an IPS on the inside of a ne...
Question 153: Which type of attack can exploit design flaws in the impleme...
Question 154: Which two primary security concerns can you mitigate with a ...
Question 155: Which type of security control is defense in depth?...
Question 156: Which two are considered basic security principles? (Choose ...
Question 157: Which command should be used to enable AAA authentication to...
Question 158: Which feature allows a dynamic PAT pool to select the next a...
Question 159: In which configuration mode do you configure the ip ospf aut...
Question 160: What can the SMTP preprocessor in FirePOWER normalize?...
Question 161: What is the FirePOWER impact flag used for?...
Question 162: Which address block is reserved for locally assigned unique ...
Question 163: Why does ISE require its own certificate issued by a trusted...
Question 164: Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an atta...
Question 165: You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to b...
Question 166: After reloading a router, you issue the dir command to verif...
Question 167: How can FirePOWER block malicious email attachments?...
Question 168: Which two advantages does the on-premise model for MDM deplo...
Question 169: Which action does standard antivirus software perform as par...
Question 170: Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?...
Question 171: What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promi...
Question 172: How can you protect CDP from reconnaissance attacks?...
Question 173: Which countermeasures can mitigate ARP spoofing attacks? (Ch...
Question 174: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) If a supplicant supplies inc...
Question 175: What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of d...
Question 176: What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is w...
Question 177: Refer to the exhibit. (Exhibit) While troubleshooting site-t...
Question 178: In the router ospf 200 command, what does the value 200 stan...
Question 179: Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can miti...
Question 180: Which type of social-engineering attack uses normal telephon...