[Apr 09, 2026] Cybersecurity-Practitioner PDF Dumps is essential on your Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam Questions Certain Success! [Q103-Q126]

Share

[Apr 09, 2026] Cybersecurity-Practitioner PDF Dumps is essential on your Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam Questions Certain Success!

Cybersecurity-Practitioner PDF Questions - Perfect Prospect To Go With Cybersecurity-Practitioner Practice Exam

NEW QUESTION # 103
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

  • A. AutoFocus
  • B. Global Protect
  • C. STIX
  • D. WildFire

Answer: A

Explanation:
page 173 "AutoFocus makes over a billion samples and sessions, including billions of artifacts, immediately actionable for security analysis and response efforts. AutoFocus extends the product portfolio with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows. Together, the platform and AutoFocus move security teams away from legacy manual approaches that rely on aggregating a growing number of detectionbased alerts and post-event mitigation, to preventing sophisticated attacks and enabling proactive hunting activities."


NEW QUESTION # 104
Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

  • A. state-affiliated groups
  • B. cybercriminals
  • C. hacktivists
  • D. cyberterrorists

Answer: D

Explanation:
Cyberterrorists are attackers who use the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and induce panic. Cyberterrorists may target critical infrastructure, government systems, or public services to cause disruption, damage, or harm. Cyberterrorists may also use the internet to disseminate propaganda, incite violence, or coordinate attacks. Cyberterrorists differ from other attacker profiles in their motivation, which is usually political, religious, or ideological, rather than financial or personal. Reference: Cyberterrorism, Cyber Threats, Cybersecurity Threat Landscape


NEW QUESTION # 105
How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

  • A. prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code
  • B. costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources
  • C. reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code
  • D. slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development

Answer: C

Explanation:
List three advantages of serverless computing over
CaaS: - Reduce costs - Increase agility - Reduce operational overhead


NEW QUESTION # 106
What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

  • A. Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS
  • B. Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor
  • C. Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not
  • D. Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

Answer: A

Explanation:
Docker and bare metal hypervisor are two different types of virtualization technologies that have different functioning mechanisms, architectures, and use cases. Docker is a containerization technology that allows users to create, deploy, and run applications using containers. Containers are isolated environments that share the same host operating system kernel, but have their own libraries, dependencies, and resources. Docker can run multiple containers on the same host, without requiring a separate operating system for each container12. Bare metal hypervisor, also known as type 1 hypervisor, is a software that runs directly on the hardware and creates virtual machines. Virtual machines are complete operating systems that have their own kernel, drivers, and resources. Bare metal hypervisor can run multiple virtual machines on the same host, each with a different operating system and dedicated resources3 .
The main difference between Docker and bare metal hypervisor is the level of abstraction they provide. Docker uses OS-level virtualization, which means it creates containers on top of the host operating system. Bare metal hypervisor uses hardware virtualization, which means it runs independently from the host operating system and creates virtual machines on the hardware layer. This difference has implications for the performance, efficiency, and portability of the virtualized environments. Docker containers are generally faster, lighter, and more scalable than virtual machines, as they do not have the overhead of running a separate operating system for each container. However, Docker containers are more limited and can run only on Linux, certain Windows servers and IBM mainframes if hosted on bare metal. Virtual machines, on the other hand, are more flexible and secure, as they can run any operating system and isolate the guest operating system from the host operating system. However, virtual machines are more resource-intensive and slower than containers, as they have to emulate the hardware and run a full operating system for each virtual machine12.
:
Docker vs VMWare: How Do They Stack Up? | UpGuard
Hypervisor vs. Docker: Complete Comparison of the Two - HitechNectar
Beginners Track - Docker On Bare Metal | dockerlabs
[Getting Started: Layer 3 Subinterfaces - Palo Alto Networks Knowledge Base]


NEW QUESTION # 107
What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

  • A. Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page
  • B. Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call
  • C. Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive
  • D. Convincing an employee that they are also an employee

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Social engineering attacks manipulate human trust to gain unauthorized access or information. Convincing an employee that an attacker is also an employee builds rapport, lowering defenses for information disclosure or credential sharing. Similarly, impersonating a company representative and requesting unrelated personal data exploits authority bias to deceive victims. These tactics exploit psychological vulnerabilities rather than technical flaws and are prevalent initial steps in multi-stage attacks. Palo Alto Networks highlights the importance of training, multi-factor authentication, and behavior-based threat detection to mitigate social engineering risks effectively.


NEW QUESTION # 108
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

  • A. DevOps
  • B. NetOps
  • C. SecOps
  • D. SecDevOps

Answer: C

Explanation:
SecOps is the organizational function that is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues. SecOps is a collaboration between security and operations teams that aims to align their goals, processes, and tools to improve security posture and efficiency. SecOps can leverage automation to simplify and accelerate security tasks, such as threat detection, incident response, vulnerability management, compliance enforcement, and more. Security automation can also reduce human errors, enhance scalability, and free up resources for more strategic initiatives. Reference:
SecOps from Palo Alto Networks
What is security automation? from Red Hat
What is Security Automation? from Check Point Software


NEW QUESTION # 109
What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

  • A. Serverless function
  • B. API
  • C. Hypervisor
  • D. Docker container

Answer: A

Explanation:
A serverless function is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure, typically as part of a Function as a Service (FaaS) model. It is executed in response to events such as HTTP requests or database changes, and the cloud provider handles the underlying infrastructure.


NEW QUESTION # 110
In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

  • A. True-negative
  • B. False-negative
  • C. False-positive
  • D. True-positive

Answer: C

Explanation:
In anti-malware, a false positive incorrectly identifies a legitimate file or application as malware. A false negative incorrectly identifies malware as a legitimate file or application. In intrusion detection, a false positive incorrectly identifies legitimate traffic as a threat, and a false negative incorrectly identifies a threat as legitimate traffic.


NEW QUESTION # 111
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

  • A. defines any network service
  • B. requires the use of only one cloud service provider
  • C. requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
  • D. enables on-demand network services

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the NIST definition, cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction1. One of the essential characteristics of cloud computing is on-demand self-service, which means that users can request and obtain computing resources as needed, without requiring human intervention from the service provider2. On-demand network services are an example of this characteristic, as they allow users to access network resources such as bandwidth, routing, firewall, or load balancing, on demand and in a scalable manner3. Reference:
The NIST definition of cloud computing
SP 800-145, The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing | CSRC
On-Demand Network Services - Palo Alto Networks


NEW QUESTION # 112
Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

  • A. Interzone traffic
  • B. Intrazone traffic
  • C. East-West traffic
  • D. North-South traffic

Answer: D

Explanation:
North-South traffic refers to the data packets that move between the virtualized environment and the external network, such as the internet or a traditional data center. This traffic typically involves requests from clients to access applications or services hosted on virtual machines (VMs) or containers, or responses from those VMs or containers to the clients. North-South traffic can also include management or monitoring traffic from external devices to the virtualized environment. Reference: Fundamentals of Cloud Security, East-West and North-South Traffic Security, What is the meaning / origin of the terms north-south and east-west traffic?


NEW QUESTION # 113
What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

  • A. DHCP markings
  • B. Decryption
  • C. Port translation
  • D. Traffic shaping

Answer: B

Explanation:
Decryption is required to inspect TLS-encrypted traffic, allowing security tools (such as firewalls or intrusion prevention systems) to analyze the contents of the traffic for threats that would otherwise remain hidden within encrypted sessions.


NEW QUESTION # 114
What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

  • A. To provide consistency in response to security issues
  • B. To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates
  • C. To complicate programming for system administration -
  • D. To give only administrators the ability to view logs

Answer: A

Explanation:
Automation in SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the process of programming tasks, alerts, and responses to security incidents so that they can be executed without human intervention. Automation in SOAR helps security teams to handle the huge amount of information generated by various security tools, analyze it through machine learning processes, and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules and workflows. Automation in SOAR also reduces the manual effort and time required for security operations, improves the accuracy and efficiency of threat detection and response, and provides consistency in handling security issues across different environments and scenarios. Reference: What is SOAR (security orchestration, automation and response)? | IBM, What Is SOAR? Technology and Solutions | Microsoft Security, Security orchestration - Wikipedia.


NEW QUESTION # 115
Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

  • A. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
  • B. Data-at-rest encryption standards
  • C. Vulnerability scanning and management
  • D. Types of physical storage media used

Answer: A

Explanation:
SaaS applications are cloud-based software that users can access from anywhere and any device. This poses a challenge for organizations to ensure that their employees are using the SaaS applications in a secure and compliant manner. Therefore, organizations need to establish and enforce acceptable use policies (AUPs) for SaaS applications that define the rules and guidelines for accessing and using the applications, such as who can use them, what data can be stored or shared, and what actions are prohibited12. AUPs help organizations to protect their data, prevent unauthorized access, and comply with local regulations and standards3. Reference: Using Software as a Service (SaaS) securely - NCSC, Minimum Security Standards for Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) and Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) | University IT, How to Secure Your SaaS Applications - CyberArk


NEW QUESTION # 116
Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

  • A. It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted
  • B. It cannot identify command-and-control traffic
  • C. It cannot monitor all potential network ports
  • D. It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

Answer: A

Explanation:
A perimeter-based network security strategy relies on firewalls, routers, and other devices to create a boundary between the internal network and the external network. This strategy assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted, and that any threat comes from outside the network. However, this assumption is flawed, as internal endpoints can also be compromised by malware, phishing, insider attacks, or other methods. Once an attacker gains access to an internal endpoint, they can use it to move laterally within the network, bypassing the perimeter defenses. Therefore, a perimeter-based network security strategy is not sufficient to protect an organization's endpoint systems, and a more comprehensive approach, such as Zero Trust, is needed. Reference:
Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) Traditional perimeter-based network defense is obsolete-transform to a Zero Trust model What is Network Perimeter Security? Definition and Components | Acalvio


NEW QUESTION # 117
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

  • A. encryption
  • B. port evasion
  • C. DNS tunneling
  • D. port scanning

Answer: B

Explanation:
Attack communication traffic is usually hidden with various techniques and tools, including:
* Encryption with SSL, SSH (Secure Shell), or some other custom or proprietary encryption
* Circumvention via proxies, remote access tools, or tunneling. In some instances, use of cellular networks enables complete circumvention of the target network for attack C2 traffic.
* Port evasion using network anonymizers or port hopping to traverse over any available open ports
* Fast Flux (or Dynamic DNS) to proxy through multiple infected endpoints or multiple, ever-changing C2 servers to reroute traffic and make determination of the true destination or attack source difficult
* DNS tunneling is used for C2 communications and data infiltration


NEW QUESTION # 118
What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?

  • A. To ingest alert data from network devices
  • B. To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices
  • C. To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture
  • D. To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices

Answer: B

Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools monitor, record, and analyze endpoint activity to detect suspicious behavior, investigate incidents, and respond to threats on user devices such as laptops and desktops.


NEW QUESTION # 119
Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

  • A. It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.
  • B. It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.
  • C. It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.
  • D. It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
XDR (Extended Detection and Response) uses machine learning (ML) to detect threats by identifying patterns and anomalies. XDR ingests data from multiple sources - including endpoints, networks, servers, and cloud workloads - to provide a unified and correlated view of threats across the environment.


NEW QUESTION # 120
What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)

  • A. Reduced interaction time
  • B. Tendency to isolate hosts
  • C. Repeated pursuit of objective
  • D. Multiple attack vectors

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Multiple attack vectors - APTs often use various methods (phishing, malware, lateral movement) to infiltrate and maintain access to a target.
Repeated pursuit of objective - APTs are known for their persistent nature, involving continuous efforts over time to achieve their goals, such as data theft or surveillance.


NEW QUESTION # 121
What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

  • A. Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security
  • B. Decreased connection quality within a local area network
  • C. Higher attack surface due to mobility
  • D. Increased sharing of data through the internet

Answer: D

Explanation:
IoT devices often have constant internet connectivity and increased data sharing, making them more vulnerable to command-and-control (C2) attacks. Their limited security features and exposure to external networks provide attackers more opportunities to compromise and control them remotely.


NEW QUESTION # 122
Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

  • A. Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed
  • B. Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials
  • C. Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access
  • D. Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

Answer: A

Explanation:
Malicious Portable Executable (PE) files hidden inside PDFs represent a stealthy delivery tactic where attackers embed executable payloads within seemingly benign documents. When a user opens the PDF, the embedded PE executes, potentially installing malware. This approach combines social engineering with file obfuscation to bypass traditional detection methods. Palo Alto Networks' Advanced WildFire sandboxing inspects such files by detonating them in isolated environments to observe behavior and identify hidden threats. This detection technique is critical for uncovering evasive malware concealed within common file types before they reach end-users.


NEW QUESTION # 123
Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

  • A. Serverless
  • B. Docker
  • C. Host-based
  • D. Kubernetes

Answer: C

Explanation:
A host-based architecture uses virtual machines (VMs) to run workloads on a shared host, commonly found in public cloud environments. Each VM operates independently with its own OS, making this model suitable for traditional and isolated application deployments.


NEW QUESTION # 124
Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

  • A. Account discovery
  • B. Resource development
  • C. Credential access
  • D. Lateral movement

Answer: A

Explanation:
Account discovery is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework under the Discovery tactic. It involves adversaries attempting to identify user accounts on a system or network.
Credential access, lateral movement, and resource development are tactics - high-level objectives an attacker is trying to achieve.


NEW QUESTION # 125
Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

  • A. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.
  • B. Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.
  • C. Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.
  • D. Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Containers are portable and lightweight alternatives to virtual machines that allow developers to package, isolate, and deploy applications across different cloud environments. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications by providing consistent and efficient development, testing, and production environments. Containers also offer benefits such as rapid provisioning, high scalability, resource optimization, and security isolation. Reference:
What are containerized applications? from Google Cloud
What are containers and why do you need them? from IBM Developer
Embracing containers for software-defined cloud infrastructure from Red Hat


NEW QUESTION # 126
......


Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Cloud Security: This domain covers cloud architectures, security challenges across application security, cloud posture, and runtime security, protection technologies like CSPM and CWPP, Cloud Native Application Protection Platforms, and Cortex Cloud functionality.
Topic 2
  • Cybersecurity: This domain covers foundational security concepts including AAA framework, MITRE ATT&CK techniques, Zero Trust principles, advanced persistent threats, and common security technologies like IAM, MFA, mobile device management, and secure email gateways.
Topic 3
  • Security Operations: This domain focuses on security operations including threat hunting, incident response, SIEM and SOAR platforms, Attack Surface Management, and Cortex solutions including XSOAR, Xpanse, and XSIAM.
Topic 4
  • Network Security: This domain addresses network protection through Zero Trust Network Access, firewalls, microsegmentation, and security technologies like IPS, URL filtering, DNS security, VPN, and SSL
  • TLS decryption, plus OT
  • IoT concerns, NGFW deployments, Cloud-Delivered Security Services, and Precision AI.
Topic 5
  • Endpoint Security: This domain addresses endpoint protection including indicators of compromise, limitations of signature-based anti-malware, UEBA, EDR
  • XDR, Behavioral Threat Prevention, endpoint security technologies like host firewalls and disk encryption, and Cortex XDR features.

 

Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam with Accurate Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner PDF Questions: https://www.freecram.com/Palo-Alto-Networks-certification/Cybersecurity-Practitioner-exam-dumps.html

True Palo Alto Networks Exam Extraordinary Practice For the Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1cGVswHcN-vqWsVXKfMJnTH5h0K2YcykB

0
0
0
10