156-315.81 Exam Dumps Free Test Engine Verified By Check Point Certified Security Expert Certified Experts
Use Real CheckPoint Achieve the 156-315.81 Dumps - 100% Exam Passing Guarantee
Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 is one of the most sought-after certifications for security professionals. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification validates the expertise required to manage advanced security solutions, troubleshoot, and optimize Check Point security architectures. The CheckPoint 156-315.81 exam is designed to assess the candidate's knowledge and skills to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Check Point Security systems.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which GUI client is supported in R81?
- A. SmartProvisioning
- B. SmartView Monitor
- C. SmartLog
- D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
SmartView Monitor is a GUI client that is supported in R81. It allows you to monitor the network and security performance of your Security Gateways and devices5. You can use it to view real-time statistics, alerts, logs, reports, and graphs6. The other GUI clients are not supported in R81 because:
A: SmartProvisioning was replaced by SmartLSM in R80.20 and later versions7. SmartLSM is a unified solution for managing large-scale deployments of Security Gateways8.
B: SmartView Tracker was replaced by SmartLog in R80 and later versions9. SmartLog is a powerful log analysis tool that enables fast and easy access to log data from multiple Security Gateways10.
D: SmartLog is not a GUI client, but a web-based application that runs on the Security Management Server or Log Server10. You can access it from any web browser or from SmartConsole.
References: SmartView Monitor R81 Help, SmartView Monitor R81 Administration Guide, What's New in Check Point R80.20, SmartLSM R81 Help, What's New in Check Point R80, SmartLog R81 Help
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which statement is true about ClusterXL?
- A. Does not support Dynamic Routing
- B. Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)
- C. Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)
- D. Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
ClusterXL supports Dynamic Routing for both Unicast and Multicast traffic. Dynamic Routing protocols, such as OSPF, BGP, or PIM, can be configured on cluster members to exchange routing information with other routers. ClusterXL supports two modes of operation for Dynamic Routing: New Mode and Legacy Mode.
References: ClusterXL Administration Guide, SK98226 - ClusterXL New Mode Overview
NEW QUESTION # 49
What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?
- A. Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall
- B. Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade
- C. Firewall Blade, URL/Application Blade, and IPS
- D. Stateful Inspection, URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 50
In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?
- A. Distributed
- B. Remote
- C. Bridge Mode
- D. Standalone
Answer: D
Explanation:
SRC: Installation and Upgrade Guide R81 In a Standalone deployment, a Check Point computer runs both the Security Gateway and Security Management Server products.
NEW QUESTION # 51
After having saved the Cllsh Configuration with the "save configuration config.txt* command, where can you find the config.txt file?
- A. You cannot locate the file in the file system sine Clish does not have any access to the bash fie system
- B. You can locate the file via SmartConsole > Command Line.
- C. You will find it in the home directory of your usef account (e.g. /home/admirV)
- D. You have to launch the WebUl and go to "Config" -> "Export Conflg File" and specifly the destination directory of your local tile system
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 52
What are the main stages of a policy installation?
- A. Initiation, Conversion and Save
- B. Verification, Commit, Installation
- C. Initiation, Conversion and FWD REXEC
- D. Verification Compilation, Transfer and Commit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The main stages of a policy installation are Verification, Compilation, Transfer, and Commit. Verification is the stage where the policy is checked for syntax errors and conflicts. Compilation is the stage where the policy is translated into a binary format that can be executed by the Security Gateway. Transfer is the stage where the policy is sent from the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway. Commit is the stage where the policy is activated on the Security Gateway3. References: Check Point R81 Security Management Guide
NEW QUESTION # 53
What ports are used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?
- A. ICA_Pull (18210), CPMI (18190) https (443)
- B. CPMI (18190)
- C. CPM (19009), CPMI (18190) CPD (18191)
- D. CPM (19009), CPMI (18190) https (443)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. CPM (19009), CPMI (18190) https (443).
SmartConsole is a client application that connects to the Security Management Server to manage and configure the security policy and objects. SmartConsole uses three ports to communicate with the Security Management Server1:
CPM (19009): This port is used for the communication between the SmartConsole client and the Check Point Management (CPM) process on the Security Management Server. The CPM process handles the database operations and the policy installation.
CPMI (18190): This port is used for the communication between the SmartConsole client and the Check Point Management Interface (CPMI) process on the Security Management Server. The CPMI process handles the authentication and encryption of the SmartConsole sessions.
https (443): This port is used for the communication between the SmartConsole client and the web server on the Security Management Server. The web server provides the SmartConsole GUI and the SmartConsole extensions.
The other options are incorrect because they either include ports that are not used by SmartConsole or omit ports that are used by SmartConsole.
References:
SmartConsole R81.20 - Check Point Software1
NEW QUESTION # 54
What command verifies that the API server is responding?
- A. api status
- B. api stat
- C. show api_status
- D. app_get_status
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The API server is a service that runs on the Security Management Server and enables external applications to communicate with the Check Point management database using REST APIs. You can verify that the API server is responding by using the following command in Expert mode:
This command will display the current status of the API server, such as running, stopped, or initializing. It will also show the API version, port number, and SSL certificate information. References: Check Point R81 REST API Reference Guide
NEW QUESTION # 55
In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?
- A. Install database
- B. Publish changes
- C. Save changes
- D. Install policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, an administrator must perform the action of installing policy. Installing policy is the process of transferring the policy package from the Security Management Server to the Security Gateway. Publishing changes is the process of saving changes to the database and making them available to other administrators. Saving changes is the process of saving changes to a session without publishing them2. Reference: Check Point R81 Security Management Guide
NEW QUESTION # 56
What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?
- A. Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.
- B. Another name for the Clean-up Rule.
- C. A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.
- D. A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The Implicit Clean-up Rule is another name for the Clean-up Rule, which is the last rule in every policy layer.
The Clean-up Rule defines the default action for traffic that does not match any of the preceding rules in the layer. The default action is to drop the traffic and log it, but it can be changed by the administrator.
References: Training & Certification | Check Point Software, Check Point Resource Library
NEW QUESTION # 57
Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identities connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?
- A. Destination Address
- B. Source Port
- C. TCP Acknowledgment Number
- D. Source Address
Answer: C
Explanation:
SecureXL does not use the TCP acknowledgment number as an attribute for identifying connections. SecureXL is a technology that accelerates the performance of the firewall by offloading some of the traffic processing from the firewall kernel to a more efficient path. SecureXL identifies connections by five attributes: source address, destination address, source port, destination port, and protocol1. These attributes are also known as the 5-tuple or the connection key. SecureXL uses these attributes to match packets to existing connections and apply the appropriate security policy and actions. SecureXL does not need to inspect the TCP sequence or acknowledgment numbers, as they are irrelevant for the connection identification and security enforcement2. The TCP sequence and acknowledgment numbers are used by the TCP protocol to ensure reliable and ordered delivery of data between endpoints
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following Central Deployment is NOT a limitation in R81.10 SmartConsole?
- A. Security Gateways/Clusters in ClusterXL HA new mode
- B. Security Gateway Clusters in Load Sharing mode
- C. Dedicated SmartEvent Server
- D. Dedicated Log Server
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 59
Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?
- A. 75%
- B. 50%
- C. 15%
- D. 80%
Answer: C
Explanation:
Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to a certain threshold. In this case, the correct threshold is specified as option D: 15%.
So, when the available disk space reaches or falls below 15%, old log entries should be deleted to free up space.
Options A, B, and C do not represent the recommended threshold for deleting old log entries according to Check Point's best practices.
Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?
- A. AES-128
- B. AES-256
- C. DES
- D. 3DES
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher that uses a 56-bit key to encrypt and decrypt
64-bit blocks of data. It was developed by IBM in 1975 and adopted by the US government as a standard for encryption. However, DES has been proven to be insecure and vulnerable to various attacks, such as brute force, differential cryptanalysis, and linear cryptanalysis. A brute force attack can break DES in a matter of hours using modern hardware. Differential cryptanalysis can reduce the number of keys to be searched by a factor of four, and linear cryptanalysis can reduce it by a factor of two. Therefore, DES is the least secure encryption algorithm among the options given.
References: Types of Encryption, Secure Organization's Data With These Encryption Algorithms, Comparative study of symmetric cryptographic algorithms
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?
- A. $FWDIR/conf/servers.conf
- B. $FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf
- C. $FWDIR/conf/conf.conf
- D. $FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?
- A. ips reset pmstat
- B. ips pmstats refresh
- C. ips pmstats reset
- D. ips pstats reset
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The CLI command to reset the IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) pattern matcher statistics is option D: ips pmstats reset. This command will reset the statistics related to the IPS pattern matcher.
Options A, B, and C are not the correct syntax for resetting the IPS pattern matcher statistics.
References: Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R81 documentation and learning resources.
NEW QUESTION # 63
What command verifies that the API server is responding?
- A. api status
- B. api stat
- C. show api_status
- D. app_get_status
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The API server is a service that runs on the Security Management Server and enables external applications to communicate with the Check Point management database using REST APIs. You can verify that the API server is responding by using the following command in Expert mode:
This command will display the current status of the API server, such as running, stopped, or initializing. It will also show the API version, port number, and SSL certificate information. References: Check Point R81 REST API Reference Guide
NEW QUESTION # 64
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
- A. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path
- B. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
- C. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path
- D. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SecureXL is a technology that improves the performance of Security Gateway by offloading the processing of some packets from the Firewall kernel to the SecureXL device driver1. SecureXL can handle packets in three different paths, depending on the type and state of the packet2:
Firewall Path: This is the slowest path, where packets are processed by the Firewall kernel and all the inspection blades. This path is used for packets that require full inspection, such as the first packet of a connection, packets that match a rule with a UTM blade, or packets that are not eligible for acceleration.
Accelerated Path: This is the fastest path, where packets are processed by the SecureXL device driver and bypass the Firewall kernel. This path is used for packets that belong to an established connection that is marked for acceleration, and do not require any further inspection by the Firewall or other blades.
Medium Path: This is a hybrid path, where packets are processed by both the SecureXL device driver and the Firewall kernel, but skip some inspection steps. This path is used for packets that belong to an established connection that is not marked for acceleration, but do not require full inspection by all the blades.
The other options are not correct because:
A: Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path: There is no such thing as Initial Path in SecureXL terminology. The initial packet of a connection is always handled by the Firewall Path.
B: Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path: These are not paths of traffic flow, but components of the unified policy in R80 and above versions. The Layer Path refers to the order of layers in the policy, the Blade Path refers to the order of blades within a layer, and the Rule Path refers to the order of rules within a blade3.
C: Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path: These are not paths of traffic flow, but possible actions that the Firewall can take on a packet. The Firewall Path is one of the paths of traffic flow, but the Accept Path and Drop Path are not. The Accept Path means that the packet is allowed to pass through the Firewall, and the Drop Path means that the packet is blocked by the Firewall4.
References: Part 3 - SecureXL, What is CoreXL & SecureXL, SecureXL Fast Accelerator (fw fast_accel) for R80.20 and above, QUANTUM 7000 SECURITY GATEWAY
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which SmartEvent component is responsible to collect the logs from different Log Servers?
- A. SmartEvent Collector
- B. SmartEvent Server
- C. SmartEvent Correlation Unit
- D. SmartEvent Database
Answer: C
Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.40/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.40_LoggingAndMo nitoring_AdminGuide/Topics-LMG/SmartEvent-Architecture.htm?tocpath=Event%20Analysis%7C_____3
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which command lists all tables in Gaia?
- A. fw tab -1
- B. fw tab -list
- C. fw tab -t
- D. fw-tab -s
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 67
What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?
- A. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.
- B. Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.
- C. Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.
- D. Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Threat Extraction (Answer B): Threat Extraction always delivers a file, but it removes potentially malicious content from the file before delivering it to the user. It is designed to provide a safe version of the file quickly, taking less than a second to complete.
Threat Emulation (Option A): Threat Emulation does not deliver the original file to the user until it has been thoroughly analyzed for threats. It may take more than 3 minutes to complete the analysis. The emphasis here is on safety and thorough inspection, which may result in a longer processing time.
Therefore, Option B correctly describes the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation.
NEW QUESTION # 68
How long may verification of one file take for Sandblast Threat Emulation?
- A. up to 5 minutes
- B. up to 3 minutes
- C. within seconds cleaned file will be provided
- D. up to 1 minutes
Answer: B
Explanation:
How long may verification of one file take for SandBlast Threat Emulation? Verification of one file may take up to 3 minutes for SandBlast Threat Emulation. SandBlast Threat Emulation is a software blade that provides protection against malicious files by emulating them in a virtual sandbox and analyzing their behavior. The emulation time depends on various factors, such as file size, file type, emulation mode, etc. The default emulation time limit is 180 seconds, but it can be changed in the Threat Prevention policy settings. Reference: [R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide], page 39.
NEW QUESTION # 69
What is the default size of NAT table fwx_alloc?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 70
When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, which of the following query syntax would you use?
- A. "Toni" AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76
- B. Ton* AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.75
- C. Toni? AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76
- D. To** AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76
Answer: A
Explanation:
When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, you would use the following query syntax:
"Toni" AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76
This query will match logs that contain the exact phrase "Toni" and the IP address 10.0.4.210, but not the IP address 10.0.4.76. The quotation marks around "Toni" ensure that only logs with that exact word are matched, not variations like Toni? or To**. The AND operator combines two conditions that must both be true, while the NOT operator excludes logs that match a certain condition. Reference: [SmartLog User Guide]
NEW QUESTION # 71
......
Check the Free demo of our 156-315.81 Exam Dumps with 628 Questions: https://www.freecram.com/CheckPoint-certification/156-315.81-exam-dumps.html
Verified 156-315.81 Q&As - Pass Guarantee 156-315.81 Exam Dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=15b-h9EoFEKAll3VO5N91vxN9xCtkQ-M6