[2023] PCCN PDF Questions - Perfect Prospect To Go With FreeCram Practice Exam
AACN PCCN Pdf Questions - Outstanding Practice To your Exam
AACN PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nursing) exam is a certification exam offered by the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) for nurses who work in progressive care units. These units are often found in hospitals and provide care to patients who require more monitoring and intervention than those in general medical-surgical units, but who are not critically ill enough to require intensive care. Nurses who work in these units must have specialized knowledge and skills to provide safe and effective care to their patients.
The PCCN certification exam is an important tool for nurses who work in progressive care settings. It provides a comprehensive assessment of a nurse's knowledge and skills related to caring for acutely ill patients, and demonstrates a commitment to providing high-quality care. Nurses who are interested in pursuing PCCN certification should review the exam content and preparation materials, and consider the benefits of certification for their career goals.
NEW QUESTION # 295
To ensure consistency in QT-interval monitoring, a single method should be used by all practitioners who are responsible for cardiac monitoring. Each facility should have a protocol in place that defines this specific method of QT-interval monitoring and includes all of the following except:
- A. The method for determining the end of the Q wave
- B. Criteria for lead selection
- C. The formula for heart rate correction
- D. Defines the equipment to be used (manual or electronic)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: The method for determining the end of the Q wave
The method for determined the end of the T wave, not the Q wave, needs to be consistent among all practitioners. Each facility should also require that whichever lead is chosen should be used for serial measurements in the same patient.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 443.
NEW QUESTION # 296
he Code of Ethics for Nurses was developed by:
- A. The American Nurses Association
- B. The state boards of nursing
- C. The American Association of Critical-Care Nurses
- D. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: The American Nurses Association
The Code of Ethics for Nurses was developed by the American Nurses Association and it articulates the principles, values, and obligations which are essential in guiding nursing actions.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 193.
NEW QUESTION # 297
Initially, when caring for a patient with a temporary pacemaker, stimulation threshold testing should be done:
- A. Hourly
- B. Every 24 hours
- C. By the physician
- D. Every shift
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Every shift
When caring for a patient with a temporary pacemaker, stimulation threshold testing should be done every shift until a stable threshold is reached. This is because the stimulation threshold (the minimum output of the pacemaker needed to consistently capture the heart) changes over time; it generally is very low when the pacing lead is initially placed and increases over time. This means it will take more output to result in capture.
Stimulation threshold testing is typically a nursing function.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 460.
NEW QUESTION # 298
Warning signs of torsades des pointes syndrome during the administration of a QT-prolonging drug that may be noted on electrocardiography include:
- A. Narrowing of the T wave
- B. A QTc (corrected QT interval) of > 300 msec
- C. A decrease in QTc (corrected QT interval) of > 60 msec from the predrug baseline QTc
- D. An increase in QTc (corrected QT interval) of > 60 msec from the predrug baseline QTc, or a QTc > 500 msec
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: An increase in QTc (corrected QT interval) of > 60 msec from the predrug baseline QTc, or a QTc > 500 msec Warning signs of torsades de pointes syndrome (TdP) that may be noted on ECG during drug administration include an increase in QTc from baseline or a QTc > 500 msec, a widening or distortion of the T wave, development of enlarged U waves or T-U waves, exaggerated T-U wave distortion on beats terminating pauses, T wave alternans, and PVC couplets or short runs of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia occurring on the T wave of the peat terminating a pause.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 444.
NEW QUESTION # 299
Clinical situations that decrease the accuracy of pulse oximetry for assessing oxygen status include:
- A. Vasoconstriction, hypertension, nail polish application
- B. Vasoactive drugs, hypertension, low cardiac output
- C. Hypotension, vasoconstriction, hypothermia
- D. Nail polish applications, movement of the sensor, hyperthermia
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Hypotension, vasoconstriction, hypothermia
Clinical situations that decrease the accuracy of pulse oximetry include:
* Hypotension
* Low cardiac output states
* Vasoconstriction or vasoactive drugs
* Hypothermia
* Poor skin adherence or movement of the sensor
* Direct exposure to ambient light
* Certain nail polish applications and treatments
* Venous pulsation
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 105-106.
NEW QUESTION # 300
Violent behavior, hallucinations, rhabdomyolysis, and hypertensive crisis are signs and symptoms of an overdose of:
- A. Phencyclidine
- B. Barbiturates
- C. LSD
- D. Cocaine
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Phencyclidine
Signs and symptoms of phencyclidine (PCP) overdose include:
* Violent behavior
* Hallucinations
* Seizures
* Rhabdomyolysis (the rapid breakdown of muscle fibers)
* Hypertensive crisis
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 288.
NEW QUESTION # 301
Unless contraindicated or not tolerated, ACE inhibitors are recommended in all heart failure patients with a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than:
- A. 60%
- B. 90%
- C. 50%
- D. 40%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: 40%
ACE inhibitors and vasodilators are used to decrease afterload in patients with heart failure. Unless they are not tolerated or are otherwise contraindicated, ACE inhibitors are recommended in all heart failure patients with a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 40%.
If the patient is not able to tolerate ACE inhibitors, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) may be used.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 233.
NEW QUESTION # 302
Which of the following refers to a technique that uses a combination of analgesics and sedatives to minimize discomfort during a procedure while assuring that the patient can maintain ventilation and communicate throughout the procedure?
- A. Presence sedation
- B. Conscious sedation
- C. Progressive sedation
- D. Critical sedation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Conscious sedation
Conscious sedation or moderate sedation is common in progressive, acute care and special procedure units. Amnesia is anticipated and often desired. The patient's ability to maintain a patent airway is central to the decision related to the use of conscious sedation.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 157.
NEW QUESTION # 303
A patient comes to the Cardiovascular Care Unit with a blood pressure of 94/68, a heart rate of 124 and chest pain rated as 8/10. The patient has already taken one 0.04 mg tablet of Nitroglycerin five minutes ago. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Take the patient's blood pressure and put them on the monitor.
- B. Administer a dose of Morphine 2 mg IV and re-assess pain.
- C. Obtain a stat EKG.
- D. Administer another dose of 0.04 mg tablet of Nitroglycerin.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The next thing the nurse should do with this patient is to give an additional dose of 0.04 mg tablet of Nitroglycerin. Patients can take up to three sublingual Nitroglycerin tablets within 15 minutes.
It may take 5 to 10 minutes to relieve chest pain. After administering the Nitroglycerin, the nurse can take vital signs and obtain an EKG. However, it is primarily important to relieve the chest pain.
NEW QUESTION # 304
Supplementation of which of the following is most frequently necessary in patients with renal failure?
- A. Pyridoxine, phosphorus, and water-soluble vitamins
- B. Folic acid, niacin, and water-soluble vitamins
- C. Folic acid, ascorbic acid, and fat-soluble vitamins
- D. Folic acid, pyridoxine, and water-soluble vitamins
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Folic acid, pyridoxine, and water-soluble vitamins
Supplementation of folic acid, pyridoxine, and water-soluble vitamins is most frequently necessary in patients with renal failure.
The diet of a patient with renal failure is usually restricted in terms of fluids, potassium, sodium, and phosphorus. Because these patients cannot eliminate wastes, fluids, or electrolytes, their dietary intake of these substances is usually restricted. A dietitian should be consulted for a diet plan, and dietary requirements for patients may change depending on their renal status and the severity of underlying conditions.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 376.
NEW QUESTION # 305
Oliguria is defined as:
- A. Urine output of less than 200 mL per day
- B. Urine output of less than 400 mL per day
- C. Urine output of less than 600 mL per day
- D. Urine output of less than 50 mL per day
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Urine output of less than 400 mL per day
Oliguria is urine output of less than 400 mL/day (24 hours). Oliguria is sometimes referred to as hypouresis (both are names from roots meaning "not enough urine"). Oliguria is clinically classified as an output of more than 100 mL/day but less than 400mL/day.
Anuria is urine output of less than 50 mL/day. It means the nonpassage of urine and would often be an indication of kidney failure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 373.
NEW QUESTION # 306
A known case of alcoholic cirrhosis presented in the A & E department with profuse hematemesis. On examination, he was having tachycardia and hypotension. IV fluids were immediately started. What cause of hematemesis comes to mind?
- A. None of the above
- B. Both of the above
- C. Peptic ulcer
- D. Esophageal varices
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: The cause of hematemesis in an individual with alcoholic cirrhosis who also has tachycardia and hypotension is bleeding esophageal varices. These are developed in liver cirrhosis because of an obstructed portal vein due to the cirrhosis. Collaterals are developed which run in the esophageal or gastric mucosa and they bleed when ruptured.
NEW QUESTION # 307
Which of the following is the most cost-effective approach for the management of hospitalized patients with acute peptic ulcer bleeding?
- A. High-dose IV H2 antagonist therapy in conjunction with therapeutic endoscopy
- B. Vasopressin in conjunction with therapeutic endoscopy
- C. High-dose IV proton pump inhibitor therapy in conjunction with therapeutic endoscopy
- D. An initial IV bolus dose of 100 mcg octreotide, followed by 50-mcg/h continuous infusion in conjunction with therapeutic endoscopy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: High-dose IV proton pump inhibitor therapy
The most cost-effective approach for the management of hospitalized patients with acute peptic ulcer bleeding is high-dose IV proton pump inhibitor therapy in conjunction with therapeutic endoscopy.
Proton pump inhibitors include pantoprazole and esomeprazole which are available in oral and injectable forms, while lansoprazole and omeprazole are available in oral forms only.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 347.
NEW QUESTION # 308
Which of the following are considered cornerstone therapy for heart failure in an effort to reverse the remodeling of the left ventricle?
- A. ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists
- B. ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers
- C. ACE inhibitors and digoxin
- D. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers
ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers are considered cornerstone therapy for heart failure in an effort to reverse the remodeling of the left ventricle.
Aldosterone antagonists may be used as add-on therapy. Digoxin is no longer considered to be first-line therapy unless paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter is present. An angiotensin receptor blocker may be used if ACE inhibitors are contraindicated.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 233.
NEW QUESTION # 309
Which of the following defines the purpose of professional codes?
- A. To define the criteria for the assessment and evaluation of the practice of the profession
- B. To identify the moral requirements of a profession and the relationships in which those practicing the profession engage
- C. To impose regulations for licensure, regulate the practice of the profession, and evaluate and monitor the actions of those practicing in the profession
- D. To delineate standards that govern the practice of the profession in various jurisdictions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: To identify the moral requirements of a profession and the relationships in which those practicing the profession engage The Code of Ethics for Nurses was developed by the American Nurses Association and states the essential principles, values, and objectives that guide nursing actions. The provisions of the Code identify the ethical obligations of nurses and apply to nurses across all roles. Among the provisions in the Code are:
* The nurse's primary obligation to the patient
* The nurse's contribution to the work environment
* The nurse's role in patient advocacy
* The nurse's duty to self
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 193.
NEW QUESTION # 310
Reversible ST-T wave changes occur in ECG in which one of the following types of myocardial infarctions?
- A. Non Q wave MI
- B. Pericarditis
- C. Q wave MI
- D. Myocarditis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Reversible ST-T wave changes occur in ECG in Non Q wave MI. A non-Q-wave MI (NQWMI) refers to damage to the heart muscle that is smaller than with your typical Q-wave MI. MI stands for myocardial infarction and that's what doctors call heart attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 311
Chest tubes are often used in the acutely ill to drain air, fluid, or blood from the mediastinum (mediastinal tubes) or the pleural spaces (pleural tubes). If air is to be removed from the pleural space, where would the nurse expect the chest tube to be inserted?
- A. Fifth intercostal space; midclavicular line
- B. Second intercostal space; midaxillary line
- C. Fifth intercostal space; midaxillary line
- D. Second intercostal space; midclavicular line
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Second intercostal space; midclavicular line
Pleural tube insertion sites vary based on the type of drainage to be removed. The tube is inserted in the second intercostal space (ICS); midclavicular line to remove air from the pleural space.
If fluid is to be removed from the pleural space, the chest tube is inserted in the fifth or sixth ICS; midaxillary line.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 25
NEW QUESTION # 312
Conditions that may impair ventilation and lead to acute respiratory failure in an adult include:
- A. Aspiration pneumonia, pulmonary edema, spinal cord injury (C4 or higher)
- B. Phrenic nerve damage, Guillain-Barre syndrome, aspiration pneumonia
- C. Spinal cord injury (C4 or higher), Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory muscle fatigue
- D. Asthma, pneumonia, phrenic nerve damage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Spinal cord injury (C4 or higher), Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory muscle fatigue Impaired ventilation problems leading to acute respiratory failure in adults include:
* Spinal cord injury (C4 and higher)
* Phrenic nerve damage
* Neuromuscular blockade
* Guillain-Barre syndrome
* CNS depression
* Drug overdose (narcotics, sedatives, illicit drugs)
* Increased intracranial pressure
* Anesthetic agents
* Respiratory muscle fatigue
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 254.
NEW QUESTION # 313
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AACN PCCN (Progressive Care Certified Nursing) Exam is a certification exam that is designed to test the knowledge and skills of registered nurses who are practicing in a critical care setting, specifically in the progressive care unit (PCU). PCCN exam is widely recognized as a measure of excellence in the field of critical care nursing and serves as a valuable asset to nurses who are looking to advance their careers.
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