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NEW QUESTION # 10
You discovered that a newly installed collector does not display on the Inventory tab in the central manager.
Which two troubleshooting steps must you perform? (Choose two answers)
- A. Check whether the FortiEDR services are running on the collector device.
- B. Verify that TCP ports 8081 and 555 are open between the collector and the central manager.
- C. Export and review the collector logs from the Central Manager for connection errors.
- D. Verify that the central manager can resolve the collector hostname through DNS.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide has a specific troubleshooting section named "A FortiEDR Collector does not display in the INVENTORY tab." It states that after a Collector is first launched, it registers with the FortiEDR Central Manager and appears in the Inventory tab. If it does not appear, the first checks are to confirm that the device where the Collector is installed is powered on and has Internet connectivity, and to validate that ports 8081 and 555 are available and not blocked by another third-party product.
Option B is therefore correct in the exam sense because ports 8081 and 555 must be open for FortiEDR communication. More precisely, the Collector communicates with the Aggregator on port 8081 and the Core on port 555 , not directly to the Central Manager in every architecture. The option wording says "between the collector and the central manager," which is technically loose, but the required troubleshooting item is still the port availability.
Option C is also correct because the same guide says to check that the endpoint is powered on and connected.
In practical FortiEDR troubleshooting, this includes confirming the FortiEDR Collector service/driver are running on the endpoint; otherwise the Collector cannot register or report health.
Option A is not listed in the FortiEDR guide as a required step for this issue. Option D is not the best answer because the guide says logs are generally retrieved when Fortinet Support requests them, and Collector logs can only be exported for Collectors in Running status; a newly installed Collector that does not appear in Inventory cannot normally be selected from Central Manager for log export.
NEW QUESTION # 11
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which statement about this threat hunting query is true? (Choose one answer)
- A. RDP connections will be automatically blocked and classified as suspicious.
- B. The query is configured as a global hunting rule and is automatically visible across all organizations.
- C. The query is limited to detecting network activity and does not inspect process behavior.
- D. A security incident will be generated whenever the device attempts an RDP connection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A .
The exhibit shows a FortiEDR Threat Hunting saved query using RemotePort:3389, scoped to a specific device, with Scheduled Query enabled, classification set to Suspicious , and a repeat interval of 15 minutes .
TCP port 3389 is the standard RDP port, so the query is designed to detect RDP-related network activity for the selected endpoint.
The FortiEDR guide states that saving a Threat Hunting query can define it as a scheduled query to automate threat detection. It further states that when a scheduled query runs and detects matches, a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab , and notifications are sent according to the security event configuration.
Option B is too absolute and therefore wrong. The specific query shown uses a network field, but Threat Hunting itself can search activity events across files, registry, network, processes, and event logs. Option C is wrong because the Community Query checkbox is not selected, so it is not configured as a shared community
/global query. The guide states that Community Query must be selected to share the query with the FortiEDR community, including other organizations.
Option D is wrong because a scheduled Threat Hunting query generates an incident; it does not automatically block RDP unless additional playbook actions are configured. The guide says scheduled queries generate security events and may trigger configured playbook actions, but the query itself is not a blocking control.
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NEW QUESTION # 12
You are asked to configure a query to run every 15 minutes, automatically searching for specific registry modifications across all endpoints. Which FortiEDR feature must you configure? (Choose one answer)
- A. A manual query linked to a policy override
- B. A new playbook trigger based on the registry change event
- C. A communication control rule with a 15-minute delay
- D. A scheduled query defined within a threat hunting profile
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting searches across endpoint activity events, including registry activity. It states that Threat Hunting can search based on attributes of files, registry keys and values, network, processes, event log, and activity event types. This fits the requirement to search for specific registry modifications across endpoints.
The guide also explains that after filtering activity events, the query can be saved and defined as a Scheduled Query. It says: "Scheduled Query: Mark this option to automate the process of detecting threats so that this query is run automatically according to the schedule that you define." It also states that a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab when matches are detected, and notifications can be sent through email, Syslog, and other configured methods.
The guide further states that the Repeat Every/On options define the frequency and schedule when the query runs. Therefore, a 15-minute recurring query is handled through the Scheduled Query capability in Threat Hunting, not Communication Control, policy override, or a manual Playbook trigger.
Strictly speaking, the guide calls this a scheduled query under Threat Hunting saved queries, not a
"communication control rule" or "manual query." Option C is the intended answer.
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NEW QUESTION # 13
Which two statements correctly describe the IoT probing process on FortiEDR? (Choose two answers)
- A. Only healthy collectors participate in IoT probing.
- B. It captures all traffic from neighboring devices for deep packet inspection.
- C. It identifies nearby devices by retrieving details such as hostname and IP address.
- D. Collectors running on servers are always used for IoT probing.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address .
This directly supports option B .
Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.
Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.
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NEW QUESTION # 14
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the incident details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about this incident are true? (Choose two answers)
- A. The incident has already been fully handled.
- B. The incident is classified by the FortiEDR Core.
- C. The destination IP address is blocked by FortiGate.
- D. The incident occurred on only one device.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and C .
The exhibit shows an audit/response action stating that IP address 74.125.235.20 was added to malicious IP addresses on firewall FortiGate . This matches the FortiEDR playbook action Block address on Firewall .
The guide states that this action ensures connections to remote malicious addresses associated with the security event are blocked, and that a firewall connector must already be configured for this action. It also explains that a checkmark in a classification column means communication with the affected destination is automatically blocked when a security event with that classification is triggered.
Option C is the second best answer because FortiEDR events are initially classified by FortiEDR detection logic/Core, and the guide states that classifications are initially determined by the Core but can later be changed automatically by FortiEDR Cloud Service or manually. The exhibit shows "Classification Changed To: Suspicious (By Fortinet)" , but it does not say the event was manually classified by an administrator. So the event classification process is FortiEDR-driven, with later Fortinet/FCS-style automatic classification possible.
Option B is wrong. The exhibit shows one raw-data row with device cwinserv-32 +2 , which indicates more than one affected device/raw item is represented in the aggregation. So it did not occur on only one device.
Option D is wrong because the incident rows clearly show Unhandled . The guide states that security events are initially marked as unread and unhandled, and the unread/unhandled status helps users track whether anyone has read and handled the event.
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NEW QUESTION # 15
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
- A. Create a new communication control policy and apply it to multiple organizations.
- B. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization.
- C. Create a new communication control policy and delegate it to other organizations.
- D. Create a new communication control policy and assign it globally to all organizations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Create a separate communication control policy for each organization .
The key point is that Communication Control is not available in Hoster view . In a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment, Hoster view is the view used to display information for all organizations together. However, the guide clearly states under the Hoster view section: "Communication Control - The Communication Control window is not available in Hoster view." That means you cannot create one global Communication Control policy from Hoster view and assign it across all organizations. Options B , C , and D all assume cross-organization/global Communication Control policy assignment, but the guide does not support that capability. The practical recommendation is to configure Communication Control policies separately inside each organization.
The guide contrasts this with Security Policies, where in Hoster view the Security Policies page displays all policies from all organizations and supports cloning a security policy from one organization to another. That statement is for Security Policies , not Communication Control policies.
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NEW QUESTION # 16
You find third-party software on a user's computer that does not appear in the application list on the communication control console. Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two answers)
- A. The application is blocked by the security policies.
- B. The application is allowed in all communication control policies.
- C. The application is ignored because its reputation score is acceptable to the security policy.
- D. The application has not made any connection attempts.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The best answers are A and D , but be careful: A is directly verified by the guide; D is the only remaining statement that can be true in policy context, but it is weaker than A.
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the Communication Control tab identifies communicating applications detected in the organization. More specifically, the Applications page lists "all communicating applications detected in your organization that have ever attempted to communicate." Therefore, if software exists on a user's computer but does not appear in the Communication Control application list, the most direct explanation is that it has not attempted external communication .
The guide also explains that FortiEDR Communication Control reduces the scope of administration because Security/IT only needs to handle applications that communicate externally. It also states that non-authorized applications can still execute, and only their outgoing communication is prevented. This confirms that the Communication Control application list is not a full software inventory; it is a list of applications that have communicated or attempted communication.
Option B is not correct. If an application were blocked due to FortiEDR security-policy enforcement after a connection attempt, FortiEDR would generate security-event visibility in the Incidents workflow, not simply hide the application from Communication Control. FortiEDR Collectors send communication-related data for Communication Control, and security events are sent for enforcement/monitoring purposes.
Option C is also wrong. Reputation score affects policy decisions and application risk evaluation, but it does not cause an application to be ignored or excluded from the application list. The guide says each application in the Applications page shows a reputation indicator, which proves reputation is displayed for listed applications rather than used to hide them.
For option D , if the application has never attempted communication, Communication Control has no observed communication event to list. In exam logic, this can be interpreted as the application is not currently being denied by Communication Control policies. However, the stronger technical truth is this:
Communication Control does not list installed software; it lists applications that have attempted to communicate.
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NEW QUESTION # 17
Refer to the Exhibit:
Based on the event shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true? (Choose two answers)
- A. The policy is in simulation mode.
- B. Playbooks are configured for this event.
- C. The event has been blocked.
- D. The device is moved to isolation.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The exhibit shows the event classification as Malicious , classified by FortinetCloudServices , and the history states that device R2D2-kvm63 was moved from the Training Collector Group to the High Security Collector Group . This is a Playbook action. The FortiEDR guide explains that after classification changes, the Overview pane displays the history of automatic FortiEDR actions, including Playbook policy-related actions .
The guide specifically lists Move device to High Security Group under Investigation actions in Playbook policies. It states that a checkmark in a classification column means the device is automatically moved to the High Security Collector Group when a security event with that classification is triggered. So the exhibit proves that Playbooks are configured for this event.
The second correct answer is B because the triggered rule is under Training * Extended Detection . The FortiEDR guide states that the eXtended Detection Policy logs events and displays them in the Incidents tab, but no blocking options are provided for this policy.
Option C is wrong because moving a device to the High Security Collector Group is not the same as isolating the device. Isolation would block communication to/from the affected Collector. The exhibit shows a Collector Group move, not isolation.
Option D is wrong because Extended Detection does not block. The guide explicitly says Extended Detection events are logged and displayed, with no blocking options provided.
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NEW QUESTION # 18
You added three new applications to FortiEDR using only the Path attribute. What are two expected outcomes of this configuration? (Choose two answers)
- A. Only applications in the specified directory paths will be blocked.
- B. These applications will be blocked only if the file name also matches.
- C. These applications will be disabled until explicitly enabled.
- D. All instances of these applications will be blocked, regardless of location.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that newly added applications are disabled by default , which means they are not blocked unless enabled. The guide further explains that the default state can be changed by enabling the Enable Default application state option in the Application Control Manager settings. Therefore, option A is correct.
Option B is also correct because Application Control allows an application to be defined by Hash or by any combination of File Name / Path / Signer . The guide says that the Path field specifies the path to the executable file of the application to be blocked. When using path-based matching, the enforcement is tied to the specified path criteria, not to every possible location of the same file.
Option C is wrong because the file name does not also need to match when only the Path attribute is used.
Option D is wrong because blocking all instances regardless of location applies when only the File Name field is used, not when the match is path-specific. The guide explicitly states that if only the File Name field is filled, the application is blocked no matter where the executable appears.
NEW QUESTION # 19
An employee leaves the company and no longer has access to the FortiEDR system. You must ensure GDPR compliance regarding the employee's personal data stored in FortiEDR. Which two data types must be removed to meet GDPR requirements? (Choose two answers)
- A. IP address and MAC address
- B. Device and user name
- C. Installed applications
- D. Installed OS name
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Device and user name and D. IP address and MAC address .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the GDPR feature is implemented in Administration > Settings > Personal Data Handling . It is used to remove relevant data for an employee or FortiEDR user who no longer has access to or uses the FortiEDR system. The guide explicitly identifies the personal data as device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name . It further states: "You must remove all device name, IP address, MAC address, and user name data from FortiEDR in order to fully comply with the GDPR standard." Therefore, installed applications and installed OS name are not the required GDPR personal data types in this FortiEDR procedure. The required removal is performed iteratively for the employee's/user's device name , IP address , MAC address , and user name . The guide also instructs administrators to continue removing the other required data: IP address, MAC address, and user name , and to delete any reports that may contain the user's data.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Within the FortiEDR architecture, which component needs JumpBox capabilities to enable authenticated and controlled communication with FortiAnalyzer? (Choose one answer)
- A. Reputation Server
- B. Central manager
- C. Core
- D. Aggregator
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Core.
For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is "A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer." The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.
So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.
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NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the exhibits.
You are attempting to move a collector into the High Security Collector Group for isolation but encounter an error in the API request as shown in the exhibit. To successfully isolate the collector, which API parameter must you correct? (Choose one answer)
- A. Change the HTTP method in the request from PUT to POST.
- B. Set the organization parameter to Default.
- C. Update the authorization credentials in the API header.
- D. Set the target collector group parameter to Engineering group.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Set the organization parameter to Default .
From the first exhibit, the API query result for the Collector shows:
* Collector name: Desktop-PC
* Collector group name: Engineering
* Organization: Default
* State: Running
But in the second exhibit, the API request is using:
* organization = Fortinet-Training
* collectors = Desktop-PC
* targetCollectorGroup = High Security Collector Group
That organization value is wrong. The Collector belongs to the Default organization, so the API request must reference the Collector's actual organization. Otherwise FortiEDR cannot locate or move that Collector under the organization specified in the request.
The FortiEDR guide confirms that Collector Groups are used to assign different FortiEDR policies to different Collectors, and that Collectors can be moved between groups/organizations in the Inventory workflow. In Hoster view, FortiEDR shows Collectors from all organizations and allows moving Collectors between organizations, but the organization context must match the Collector being managed.
Option B is wrong because the exhibit shows the API request is authorized; the failure is a 400 Bad Request , not an authentication failure. Option C is wrong because the endpoint shown is already a move/update operation using PUT, and the issue is not the HTTP method. Option D is wrong because Engineering is the current Collector Group. The goal is to move the Collector to High Security Collector Group , so changing the target back to Engineering would not isolate or harden the Collector.
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NEW QUESTION # 22
What specific action does FortiEDR take when the Zero Trust Device Tagging playbook is activated?
(Choose one answer)
- A. It disables the endpoint until a tag is assigned.
- B. It updates FortiClient EMS through an API and assigns a classification fabric tag.
- C. It assigns a default tag to all endpoints.
- D. It removes unmanaged endpoints from FortiClient EMS.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 23
Refer to the exhibit.
What observation can you make about the ConnectivityTestAppNew.exe incident? (Choose one answer)
- A. The incident has not been handled by a console administrator.
- B. The incident was handled automatically by the communication control policy.
- C. A rule assigned action is set to block but the policy is in simulation mode.
- D. The incident was archived from the console unhandled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B .
In the exhibit, the incident status clearly shows Unhandled at the incident level and also on the event rows.
The FortiEDR guide explains that every detected security event is initially marked as unread and unhandled
, and these statuses help multiple FortiEDR Central Manager users track whether anyone has read and handled the message.
The guide also states that when a FortiEDR Central Manager user marks a security event as Handled , all users see it as handled. The process is performed by selecting the event and clicking Handle Incident or the flag icon, then saving the incident handling details.
So the valid observation from the exhibit is that the incident has not been handled by a console administrator .
Option A is not supported by the exhibit. There is no visible evidence that the policy is in Simulation mode.
Option C is wrong because the incident is still visible, not archived or deleted. Option D is wrong because the status is explicitly Unhandled ; it was not handled automatically by a Communication Control policy.
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NEW QUESTION # 24
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