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The CRISC certification exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that test the candidate's knowledge and understanding of information systems risk management and control. CRISC exam covers four domains: Risk Identification, Assessment and Evaluation, Risk Response, Risk Monitoring and Reporting, and Information Systems Control Design and Implementation. CRISC exam is four hours long, and a passing score of 450 or higher out of a possible 800 is required to obtain the certification.
CRISC certification is beneficial for professionals who want to advance their careers in the field of risk management and information systems controls. The CRISC certification exam covers topics such as risk identification, assessment, and evaluation; risk response planning; risk monitoring and reporting; and IS control design and implementation. CRISC certified professionals are equipped with the knowledge and skills to identify and evaluate risks, design and implement effective IS controls, and monitor and report on IS risks and controls. The CRISC certification is an excellent way to demonstrate one’s expertise and credibility in the field of risk management and information systems controls.
The CRISC certification is highly regarded in the field of IT risk management and is considered an essential qualification for professionals who want to advance their career in this area. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification exam is rigorous and comprehensive, and it requires candidates to have a deep understanding of the principles and practices of risk management. CRISC exam is also designed to assess the candidate's ability to apply this knowledge in real-world scenarios and to make informed decisions that help their organization manage risks effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 922
To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?
- A. IT department
- B. business owner
- C. Risk manager
- D. Third-party provider
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 923
An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?
- A. Secure encryption protocols are utilized.
- B. A risk transfer clause is included in the contact
- C. The solution architecture is approved by IT.
- D. Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 924
Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?
- A. Data classification policy
- B. Emerging technology trends
- C. The IT strategic plan
- D. The risk register
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls is the risk register. The risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses.
The risk register provides a holistic and systematic view of the risk profile and the risk treatment of the organization. The risk register can help to prioritize the implementation of information systems controls by providing the information on the likelihood, impact, and exposure of the risks, the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, and the gaps or issues of the control environment. The other options are not as comprehensive as the risk register, as they are related to the specific aspects or components of the information systems controls, not the overall assessment and evaluation of the information systems controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
NEW QUESTION # 925
Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?
- A. Risk register
- B. Risk management framework
- C. Global security standards
- D. Recent security incidents reported by competitors
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most relevant source to reference when updating security awareness training materials is the recent security incidents reported by competitors. This can help to illustrate the real-world threats and consequences of poor security practices, and to motivate the employees to follow the security policies and procedures. Risk management framework, risk register, and global security standards are other sources that may be useful, but they are not as relevant as the recent security incidents. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 9; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 214.
NEW QUESTION # 926
Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?
- A. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders
- B. Appointing the risk manager from the business units
- C. Providing regular communication to risk managers
- D. Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best method of creating risk awareness in an organization is to ensure senior management commitment to risk training. Senior management plays a vital role in setting the tone and direction of the risk culture and governance in the organization. By demonstrating their support and participation in risk training, they can influence and motivate the employees to follow the risk policies and procedures, and to enhance their risk knowledge and skills. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders, providing regular communication to risk managers, and appointing the risk manager from the business units are other methods of creating risk awareness, but they are not as effective as ensuring senior management commitment to risk training. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
NEW QUESTION # 927
Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?
- A. Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)
- B. Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)
- C. Cost of control implementation
- D. Maturity of the enterprise architecture
Answer: C
Explanation:
When selecting a risk mitigation option, management should consider the cost of control implementation, as
well as the benefits and residual risks. The cost of control implementation includes the direct costs of
acquiring, installing, and maintaining the control, as well as the indirect costs of potential side effects, suchas
reduced performance, increased complexity, or decreased user satisfaction. The cost of control
implementation should be balanced with the expected reduction in risk exposure and the alignment with the
enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance. The maturity of the enterprise architecture, the reliability of key
performance indicators (KPIs), and the reliability of key risk indicators (KRIs) are relevant factors for risk
identification and assessment, but not for risk response selection. References = Risk and Information Systems
Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 149.
NEW QUESTION # 928
A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:
- A. ownership of responsibilities.
- B. a business recovery plan.
- C. the providers financial statements.
- D. provision for source code escrow.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 929
Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?
- A. Implementing control activities
- B. Conducting control self-assessments
- C. Owning risk scenarios
- D. Monitoring control effectiveness
Answer: D
Explanation:
The second line of defense is a group of functions that provide oversight, guidance, and monitoring of the risk management activities of the first line of defense. The second line of defense includes risk management, compliance, and internal control departments. Their key responsibility is to monitor the effectiveness of the control activities implemented by the first line of defense, and to report any issues or gaps to senior management and the board. The second line of defense also supports the first line of defense by providing frameworks, policies, tools, and techniques to identify, measure, and manage risks. The other options are not the key responsibility of the second line of defense, as explained below:
* A. Implementing control activities is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which consists of the business units and process owners that own and manage the risks associated with their daily operations.
* C. Conducting control self-assessments is a technique used by the first line of defense to evaluate the design and operation of their own controls, and to identify and report any deficiencies or improvement opportunities.
* D. Owning risk scenarios is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which is accountable for the risks inherent in their business activities, and for developing and executing risk response strategies.
* References = Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US, The second line of defence:
fit for purpose, not an uncomfortable fit | Knowledge | Linklaters, COSO's Take on the Three Lines of Defense | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management, Three Lines of Defense | Risk Management - Schneider Downs CPAs, What is the Three Lines of Defense Approach to Risk Management?
NEW QUESTION # 930
Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?
- A. Password reset volume per month
- B. Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts
- C. Average time to provision user accounts
- D. Average account lockout time
Answer: C
Explanation:
The average time to provision user accounts is the most useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management (IAM) process, because it reflects how quickly and smoothly the process can grant access to the appropriate users. The average time to provision user accounts can be calculated by dividing the total time spent on provisioning user accounts by the number of user accounts provisioned in a given period. A lower average time indicates a more efficient IAM process, as it means that users can access the resources they need without unnecessary delays or errors. A higher average time may indicate problems or bottlenecks in the IAM process, such as manual steps, complex workflows, lack of automation, or insufficient resources. The average time to provision user accounts can also be compared across different applications, systems, or business units to identify areas for improvement or best practices. The other options are less useful indicators to measure the efficiency of an IAM process. The number of tickets for provisioning new accounts shows the demand for the IAM process, but not how well the process meets the demand. The password reset volume per month shows the frequency of password-related issues, but not how effectively the IAM process handles them. The average account lockout time shows the impact of account lockouts on user productivity, but not how efficiently the IAM process prevents or resolves them. References = Top Identity and Access Management Metrics
NEW QUESTION # 931
To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:
- A. require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement
- B. clearly define the project scope.
- C. notify network administrators before testing
- D. perform background checks on the vendor.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, notifying network administrators before testing is the best
mitigating control to reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, because it helps to avoid
any disruption or damage to the network services and systems. Penetration testing is a technique that
simulates an attack on the network to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities and weaknesses. Notifying
network administrators before testing allows them to prepare for the test, monitor the test activities, and
respond to any incidents or issues that may arise during the test. The other options are not the best mitigating
controls, because they do not address the risk of network disruption or damage. Requiring the vendor to sign a
nondisclosure agreement is a legal measure that protects the confidentiality of the network information, but it
does not prevent the vendor from causing any harm to the network. Clearly defining the project scope is a
planning activity that sets the boundaries and objectives of the test, but it does not ensure the safety and
availability of the network. Performing background checks on the vendor is a due diligence activity that
verifies the vendor's credentials and reputation, but it does not guarantee the vendor's performance or
behavior. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, page 181.
NEW QUESTION # 932
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?
- A. Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities
- B. Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding
- C. Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed
- D. Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed
Answer: C
Explanation:
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that measures the effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk. A
good KCI for a vulnerability management program should reflect how well the program is reducing the
exposure to high-risk vulnerabilities. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed is a KCI that
shows the proportion of identified high-risk vulnerabilities that have been remediated or mitigated within a
defined time frame. This KCI can help monitor the progress and performance of the vulnerability
management program and identify areas for improvement.
The other options are not the best KCI for a vulnerability management program because they do not measure
the effectiveness of the control. The percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed is a measure of the
completeness of the vulnerability scanning process, not the control. The number of high-risk vulnerabilities
outstanding is a measure of the current risk exposure, not the control. The defined thresholds for high-risk
vulnerabilities are a measure of the risk appetite, not the control. References = Risk and Information Systems
Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, Section 3.4: Risk Indicators, p. 133-134.
NEW QUESTION # 933
Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?
- A. Cost-benefit analysis
- B. Threat and vulnerability analysis
- C. Control effectiveness assessment
- D. Internal and external audit reports
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 934
An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
- A. Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.
- B. The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.
- C. Resources may be inefficiently allocated.
- D. Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 935
Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?
- A. Reduction in personnel costs
- B. Elimination of compensating controls
- C. Alignment of investment with risk appetite
- D. Cost-benefit analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 936
A risk owner should be the person accountable for:
- A. managing controls.
- B. implementing actions.
- C. the business process.
- D. the risk management process
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 937
Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?
- A. Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.
- B. Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements
- C. Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.
- D. Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 938
Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?
- A. Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)
- B. Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)
- C. Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage
- D. Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most helpful way to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives is to include key stakeholders in the review of user requirements, because this ensures that the application is designed and developed according to the needs and expectations of the end users and the business owners. Including key stakeholders in the review of user requirements also helps to avoid scope creep, requirement changes, or miscommunication that may affect the quality, functionality, or usability of the application. The other options are not the most helpful ways to mitigate the risk, although they may also be useful in reducing the likelihood or impact of the risk. Identifying threats that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA), including diverse business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT), and performing risk assessments during the business case development stage are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to identify and address the potential issues or problems that may arise during the application development process, but they do not address the alignment of the application with the business objectives. References
= CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
NEW QUESTION # 939
Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?
- A. Sustained financial loss
- B. Duration of service outage
- C. Cost of remediation efforts
- D. Average time to recovery
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 940
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?
- A. availability of in-house resources
- B. Results of end user acceptance testing
- C. Completeness of system documentation
- D. Variances between planned and actual cost
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 941
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?
- A. Business case documentation
- B. Organizational hierarchy
- C. Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation
- D. Organizational risk appetite statement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation provides the most useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across the organization's technical environment, because it describes the structure and behavior of the organization's IT systems, applications, infrastructure, and processes, and how they support and enable the organization's strategy and objectives. EA documentation also defines the principles, standards, and guidelines that govern the design and implementation of the IT solutions and services.
Aggregated risk is the total or combined level of risk that the organization faces from multiple or interrelated sources or scenarios. Aggregated risk may have a greater impact than the sum of the individual risks, due to the synergistic or compounding effects of the risks. The technical environment is the set of IT components and capabilities that support the organization's business functions and processes. Tracing the impact of aggregated risk across the technical environment is a process of identifying and assessing the potential or actual consequences of the aggregated risk on the performance, functionality, or security of the IT systems, applications, infrastructure, or processes. EA documentation provides the most useful information, as it helps to understand and analyze the interdependencies and relationships of the IT components and capabilities, and to evaluate the effect of the aggregated risk on the alignment and integration of IT with the organization's strategy and objectives. Business case documentation, organizational risk appetite statement, and organizational hierarchy are all possible sources of information to trace the impact of aggregated risk, but they are not the most useful information, as they do not provide a comprehensive and detailed view of the technical environment and its architecture. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter
5, Section 5.2.1, page 183
NEW QUESTION # 942
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual
risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?
- A. Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls
- B. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system
- C. Cost of the Information control system
- D. Frequency of business impact
Answer: A
Explanation:
Residual risk is the risk that remains after security controls have been implemented on a system. Residual
risk can be accepted, transferred, avoided, or further mitigated. The most important consideration when
deciding whether to accept residual risk is the cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls. This
means comparing the potential impact of the residual risk with the cost and effectiveness of implementing
more controls to reduce it. If the cost of additional controls outweighs the benefit of reducing the residual risk,
then it may be acceptableto accept the residual risk. However, if the benefit of additional controls exceeds the
cost, then it may be advisable to implement more controls to lower the residual risk to an acceptable
level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and
Mitigation, Section 3.4: Risk Response Selection, p. 156-157.
NEW QUESTION # 943
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